# Practise multiple-choice questions

## Sample examination 1, paper 2

### Operating practices, procedures and theory

Ctrl + Refresh will clear the answers to allow a rerun of this paper.

1. Having established contact on a calling frequency it is good practice to:

(a) stay on the same frequency

(b) move to another frequency

(c) invite others to join in on the same frequency

(d) be objectionable to all others calling

Click to reveal the correct answer

2. The purpose of a terrestrial repeater is to

(a) increase satellite coverage

(b) increase the range of mobile stations

(c) increase the range of fixed stations

(d) minimise contacts by pedestrian stations

Click to reveal the correct answer

3. The Q-code for 'standby' is:

(a) QRN

(b) QRM

(c) QRS

(d) QRX

Click to reveal the correct answer

4. COIL using the phonetic alphabet would be:

(a) Charlie, Oscar, India, Lima

(b) Charlie, Ocean, Italy, Lima

(c) Coil, Oscar, Inductance, London

(d) Charlie, Oscar, Italy, London

Click to reveal the correct answer

5. The Band Plans should be observed because:

(a) they are mandatory

(b) they are governed by international regulations

(c) they are intended to aid operating

(d) they are only for novices

Click to reveal the correct answer

6. It is good safety practice to:

(a) use plastic piping for earthing

(b) unearth all metal cases

(c) have no master switch

(d) supply all mains power via a master switch

Click to reveal the correct answer

7. When calling a station it is good practice to:

(a) put your callsign first

(b) use your callsign only

(c) put the callsign of the station being called first

(d) use the callsign of the other station only

Click to reveal the correct answer

8. In the RST code T is for:

(a) temperature of PA stage

(b) tone

(c) time of transmission

(d) transmitter type

Click to reveal the correct answer

9. To prevent annoying other users on a band, a transmitter should always be tuned initially:

(a) on a harmonic outside the band

(b) into an antenna

(c) into a dummy load

(d) into a dipole

Click to reveal the correct answer

10. Two 10kW resistors are connected in parallel across a 5V DC supply. The total current taken is:

(a) 50mA

(b) 0.5mA

(c) 1mA

(d) 1 A

Click to reveal the correct answer

11. The diagram represents a trace on an oscilloscope. What is the frequency of the displayed waveform?

(a) 1kHz

(b) 5kHz

(c) 10kHz

(d) 100kHz

Click to reveal the correct answer

12. In the diagram in question 11, what is the peak to peak value of the waveform?

(a) 1V

(b) 2V

(c) 10V

(d) 20V

Click to reveal the correct answer

13. As the frequency rises, the reactance of an inductor:

(a) stays constant

(b) decreases

(c) increases

(d) does none of these

Click to reveal the correct answer

14. The resonant frequency of the circuit is:

(a) 1.59155kHz

(b) 15.9155kHz

(c) 159.155kHz

(d) 1591.55kHz

Click to reveal the correct answer

15. A power gain of 4 is equivalent to:

(a) 3dB

(b) 6dB

(c) 10dB

(d) 16dB

Click to reveal the correct answer

16. Which of the following represents the diode in a conducting condition?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

Click to reveal the correct answer

17. If the base potential of an NPN transistor is held at the emitter potential, the collector current will be:

(a) zero

(b) always 1A

(c) between 10mA and

(d) very high

Click to reveal the correct answer

18. The output impedance of an emitter-follower buffer amplifier is:

(a) infinite

(b) very high

(c) zero

(d) fairly low

Click to reveal the correct answer

19. The circuit shown below depicts:

(a) an audio amplifier

(b) an RF amplifier

(c) a mixer

(d) a BFO

Click to reveal the correct answer

20. The circuit in question 19 operates in:

(a) Class A

(b) Class AB

(c) Class B

(d) Class C

Click to reveal the correct answer

21. Integrated circuits that performs logic functions with binary signals are classified as:

(a) linear circuits

(b) linear amplifiers

(c) analogue mixers

(d) digital circuits

Click to reveal the correct answer

22. The trace shown below is from a power supply. The ripple is:

(a) 1 V

(b) 3V

(c) 12V

(d) 15V

Click to reveal the correct answer

23. The frequency difference between the wanted RF signal and the so-called second channel is:

(a) twice the third IF

(b) twice the wanted RF

(c) twice the first IF

(d) the wanted RF plus the first IF

Click to reveal the correct answer

24. In a direct-conversion receiver, the local oscillator is:

(a) very much higher than the received signal

(b) very much lower than the received signal

(c) always at 10.7MHz

(d) very close to that of the received frequency

Click to reveal the correct answer

25. The squelch in a receiver is operated by:

(a) the VFO

(b) the power supply

(c) the heterodyne oscillator

(d) either the IF or AF signal

Click to reveal the correct answer

26. The effect of the AGC on receipt of a very strong incoming signal is to:

(a) reduce the VFO output

(b) reduce the gain of the RF and IF amplifiers

(c) reduce the power supply voltage

(d) reduce a filter response

Click to reveal the correct answer

27. A high first IF allows easier filtering to prevent:

(a) power supply ripple

(b) local oscillator breakthrough

(c) second-channel interference

(d) second IF breakthrough

Click to reveal the correct answer

28. The principal outputs from the following circuit are:

(a) 9 and 39MHz

(b) 9 and 69MHz

(c) 30 and 39MHz

(d) 39 and 69MHz

Click to reveal the correct answer

29. In order to demodulate CW transmissions in an AM-only receiver, which of the following is required?

(a) a BFO

(b) an FM detector

(c) a crystal multiplier

(d) a morse key

Click to reveal the correct answer

30. The coil determining the frequency of a transmitter VFO should be:

(a) air cored with no former

(b) air cored and tightly wound on a former

(c) air cored and loosely wound on a former

(d) wound on a metallic former

Click to reveal the correct answer

31. To produce double sideband, suppressed carrier signal, which of the following should be used?

(a) a balanced mixer

(b) a crystal filter

(c) a single transistor mixer

(d) a single diode mixer

Click to reveal the correct answer

32. The following represents a CW transmitter. Ideally, keying should be applied at:

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

Click to reveal the correct answer

33. The output power from an FM transmitter:

(a) is constant irrespective of modulation

(b) varies with modulation

(c) is zero with no modulation

(d) reduces to 50% with modulation

Click to reveal the correct answer

34. The output amplifier of an SSB transmitter must:

(a) act as a switch

(b) be in a linear mode

(c) be in a non-linear mode

(d) act as a multiplier

Click to reveal the correct answer

35. In the following circuit arrangement, to give an output of 145.000MHz, the crystal oscillator is at:

(a) 10.7142MHz

(b) 12.08333MHz

(c) 72.5000MHz

(d) 145.000MHz

Click to reveal the correct answer

36. If a transmitter output impedance is 50W, for optimum power transfer the load should be:

(a) 50W

(b) 75W

(c) 100W

(d) 150W

Click to reveal the correct answer

37. The RF spectrum required to transmit an SSB signal is:

(a) half the modulating signal bandwidth

(b) the same as the modulating signal bandwidth

(c) twice the modulating signal bandwidth

(d) zero

Click to reveal the correct answer

38. The wavelength of a signal of 100MHz in free space is:.

(a) 30mm

(b) 0.3m

(c) 3.0m

(d) 30m

Click to reveal the correct answer

39. In order to radiate, an electromagnetic wave must have:

(a) E field only

(b) H field only

(c) E and H field

(d) air to travel in

Click to reveal the correct answer

40. Polarisation of an electromagnetic wave is fixed by:.

(a) the direction of the H field

(b) the direction of propagation

(c) by an anti-phase signal

(d) the orientation of the transmitting antenna

Click to reveal the correct answer

41. The signals returned from the layers above the earth are referred to as:

(a) the ground wave

(b) the ionospheric wave

(c) the tropospheric wave

(d) the direct wave

Click to reveal the correct answer

42. As frequency increases, the ionisation to reflect a signal back to the earth must:.

(a) decrease

(b) go to zero

(c) not change

(d) increase

Click to reveal the correct answer

43. Fading can be caused by:.

(a) a poor antenna

(b) horizontal polarisation

(c) interaction of the sky and ground wave

(d) poor coaxial cable

Click to reveal the correct answer

44. A transmission line is said to be perfectly matched when it is terminated by a resistance equal to:

(a) half the characteristic impedance

(b) twice the characteristic impedance

(c) an open-circuit

(d) the characteristic impedance

Click to reveal the correct answer

45. The following antenna represents:

(a) an end-fed wire

(b) a simple dipole

(c) a cubical quad

(d) a trap dipole

Click to reveal the correct answer

46. The addition of reflectors and a director to a folded dipole:.

(a) raises its impedance

(b) has no effect on its impedance

(c) lowers its impedance

(d) produces no directivity

Click to reveal the correct answer

47. The typical accuracy of a moving coil meter is:.

(a) 0.03%

(b) 0.3%

(c) 3%

(d) 10%

Click to reveal the correct answer

48. A dummy load for use at VHF should be made from:.

(a) wire-wound resistors

(b) carbon resistors

(c) metal oxide resistors

(d) electric-fire heating elements

Click to reveal the correct answer

49. To measure DC input power to a final amplifier, various meters are used. Those necessary are:

(a) voltmeter at A, ammeter at B

(b) voltmeter at A, ammeter at C

(c) voltmeter at C, ammeter at A

(d) voltmeter at C, ammeter at B

Click to reveal the correct answer

50. The action of the so-called 'dip oscillator' depends on:

(a) extraction of energy from the tuned circuit on test

(b) extraction of energy from the dip oscillator by circuit under test

(c) radiation from a nearby transmitter

(d) the tuned circuit on test changing the dip oscillator frequency

Click to reveal the correct answer

51. The following represents the output of a digital frequency counter. What does the digit at X signify?

(a) hertz

(b) tens of hertz

(c) hundreds of hertz

(d) thousands of hertz

Click to reveal the correct answer

52. The coaxial cable from an SWR meter to an antenna develops a fault so that so that no power reaches the antenna the SWR meter will read:

(a) zero

(b) 1:1

(c) high

(d) very low

Click to reveal the correct answer

53. Which of the following would be used to examine the shape of a waveform?

(a) an oscilloscope

(b) an absorption wavemeter

(c) a digital frequency counter

(d) a dip meter

Click to reveal the correct answer

54. For accurate frequency measurement, which of the following instruments would be used?.

(a) an absorption wavemeter

(b) an oscilloscope

(c) a moving-coil multimeter

(d) a digital frequency counter

Click to reveal the correct answer

55. When measuring frequency in the above equipment, the probe should preferably be placed at:

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

Click to reveal the correct answer

Index | Next