# Practise multiple-choice questions

## Sample examination 2, Paper 2

### Operating practices, procedures and theory

Ctrl + Refresh will clear the answers to allow a rerun of this paper.

1. Before making a CQ call:

(a) listen on the frequency before commencing

(b) send a series of V's in morse

(c) send a 1750Hz tone

(d) keep giving your callsign

Click to reveal the correct answer

2. To access a repeater in the UK one must:

(a) send the callsign of the repeater in ASCII

(b) send a 1750Hz tone burst

(c) send a 1850Hz tone burst

(d) speak the callsign of the repeater

Click to reveal the correct answer

3. If a station asks 'please QSY, this means:

(a) there is fading

(b) change frequency

(c) stop transmitting

(d) reply in morse

Click to reveal the correct answer

4. The only general call allowed from an amateur station is:

(a) a news bulletin

(b) a CQ call

(c) a third-party call

(d) on VHF

Click to reveal the correct answer

(a) as much power as possible

(b) Esperanto

(c) sufficient power to maintain reliable communications

(d) FM only

Click to reveal the correct answer

6. For safety reasons all exposed metal work in an amateur station should be:

(a) connected to mains neutral

(b) free of earth connections

(c) left completely floating

(d) connected to a good RF earth

Click to reveal the correct answer

7. If a readability report of R2 is given, this would indicate:

(a) unreadable

(b) only readable with considerable difficulty

(c) readable with practically no difficulty

(d) perfectly readable

Click to reveal the correct answer

8. When wearing headphones it is not advisable to:

(a) be calling CQ

(b) have one's hands inside live equipment

(c) be switching off

(d) have rubber gloves on

Click to reveal the correct answer

9. Which of the following uses the International Phonetic Alphabet?

(a) Boston, Uruguay, Gordon

(b) Belgium, Units, Gravity

(c) Bee, You, Gee

(d) Bravo, Uniform, Golf

Click to reveal the correct answer

10. A light bulb is rated at 12V, 3W. The current drawn when used on a 12V source is:

(a) 250mA

(b) 750mA

(c) 4A

(d) 36A

Click to reveal the correct answer

11. The tolerance of a resistor is given as 10%. If the nominal value is 4700W, then its value must lie between:

(a) 4230 and 5170W

(b) 4653 and 4747W

(c) 4230 and 4747W

(d) 4653 and 5170W

Click to reveal the correct answer

12. The total capacitance of the following circuit is:

(a) 1.33mF

(b) 3mF

(c) 3.5mF

(d) 6mF

Click to reveal the correct answer

13 The following impedance-frequency curve represents

(a) a capacitance

(b) a parallel tuned circuit

(c) an inductance

(d) a series-tuned circuit

Click to reveal the correct answer

14. The resonant frequency of a tuned circuit is 1MHz and the bandwidth at the -3dB points is 10kHz. The Q factor of the circuit is:

(a) 50

(b) 100

(c) 500

(d) 1000

Click to reveal the correct answer

15. The impedance seen at terminals AB in the following diagram is:

(a) 0W

(b) 250W

(c) 1000W

(d) 4000W

Click to reveal the correct answer

16. There are two basic forms of transistor, these are:

(a) PNP and NNP

(b) PNP and NPN

(c) PPN and NNP

(d) NPP and PNN

Click to reveal the correct answer

17. A varactor diode acts like:

(a) a variable resistance

(b) a variable voltage regulator

(c) a variable capacitance

(d) a variable inductance

Click to reveal the correct answer

18. The following circuit is for:

(a) half-wave rectification

(b) full-wave voltage stabilisation

(c) reverse bias protection

(d) voltage multiplication

Click to reveal the correct answer

19. Colpitts, Hartley, Clapp-Gouriet and Vackar are all types of:

(a) power supply

(b) amplifier

(c) oscillator

(d) modulator

Click to reveal the correct answer

20. For a transistor to conduct:

(a) the base must be 0.6V above the emitter

(b) the base must be soldered to the emitter

(c) the collector must be soldered to the emitter

(d) the base lead must be removed

Click to reveal the correct answer

21. A Class C amplifier conducts over:

(a) the complete cycle

(b) three-quarters of a cycle

(c) exactly half a cycle

(d) less than half a cycle

Click to reveal the correct answer

22. The input resistance of a common-emitter amplifier stage is in the region of:

(a) 50W

(b) 250W

(c) 2kW

(d) 20kW

Click to reveal the correct answer

23. The main filtering of the wanted signal in a superheterodyne receiver is normally accomplished in:

(a) the RF amplifier

(b) the audio circuitry

(c) the second mixer

(d) the IF section

Click to reveal the correct answer

24. A receiver is quoted as having a sensitivity of 0.5mV for 20dB S/N ratio. The latter refers to a comparison between:

(a) the unwanted signal and wanted noise

(b) the wanted signal and unwanted noise

(c) the unwanted signal and unwanted noise

(d) the wanted signal and wanted noise

Click to reveal the correct answer

25. The circuit shown below is that of:

(a) an envelope detector

(b) a single-phase mains rectifier

(c) a discriminator

(d) a phase detector

Click to reveal the correct answer

26. In the detection of SSB signals there is normally a carrier insertion oscillator. In a high-quality receiver this is:

(a) a VFO

(b) varactor controlled

(c) inductor controlled

(d) crystal controlled

Click to reveal the correct answer

27. One advantage of FM over AM is:

(a) increased distance range

(b) narrower bandwidth required

(c) freedom from most sources of 'man-made' interference

(d) no antenna is needed

Click to reveal the correct answer

28. For CW reception, the difference in frequency of the BFO and final IF should be about:

(a) 1kHz

(b) 10kHz

(c) 455kHz

(d) 10.7MHz

Click to reveal the correct answer

29. In frequency modulation, the amplitude of the modulating signal manifests itself as:

(a) amplitude variations of the carrier

(b) envelope variations of the carrier

(c) deviation from average carrier frequency

(d) a constant carrier offset

Click to reveal the correct answer

30. The frequency of a VFO depends on an L-C circuit. The frequency is determined by:

(a) the difference between L and C

(b) the sum of L and C

(c) the ratio L/C

(d) the product of L and C

Click to reveal the correct answer

31. The following spectrum plot is typical of:

(a) amplitude modulation

(b) amplitude modulation, suppressed carrier

(c) single sideband, reduced carrier

(d) single sideband, full carrier

Click to reveal the correct answer

32. The following is part of a transmitter. It is typical of..

(a) an RF filter

(b) a deviation control

(c) an amplitude modulator

(d) an SSB generator

Click to reveal the correct answer

33. A VFO should ideally be followed by:

(a) a buffer amplifier

(b) a power amplifier

(c) a Class C amplifier

(d) a notch filter

Click to reveal the correct answer

34. Which of the following represents 100% amplitude modulation?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

Click to reveal the correct answer

35. The advantage of J3E transmission is:

(a) power output minimised with modulation

(b) power output maximised with no modulation

(c) minimum power dissipation in PA with no modulation

(d) maximum power dissipation in PA with no modulation

Click to reveal the correct answer

36. The circuit below represents a:

(a) frequency modulator

(b) amplitude modulator

(c) phase modulator

(d) amplitude demodulator

Click to reveal the correct answer

37. In the diagram of question 36, components L1, L2, C1 and C2 provide:

(a) harmonic suppression and impedance matching

(b) harmonic suppression only

(c) output matching only

(d) audio filtering

Click to reveal the correct answer

38. In electromagnetic radiation, which of the following is true ?

(a) E and H are at 180° to each other

(b) E, H and the direction of propagation are all at right angles to each other

(c) the angle between E and H is 0°

(d) the velocity of propagation is at 180° to the E field but in line with the H field

Click to reveal the correct answer

39. The major mode of propagation up to about 2MHz is by:

(a) direct wave

(b) tropospheric wave

(c) ionospheric wave

(d) ground wave

Click to reveal the correct answer

40. The skip zone is where the ground wave:

(a) is enhanced

(b) is reflected

(c) has diminished and the reflected wave has not returned to earth

(d) ground and reflected wave combine

Click to reveal the correct answer

41. Refraction of an electromagnetic wave is:

(a) the same as reflection

(b) the bending of its path

(c) absorption by the ionosphere

(d) bouncing from a stellar object

Click to reveal the correct answer

42. The MUF for a given radio path is:

(a) the mean of the maximum and minimum usable frequencies

(b) the maximum usable frequency

(c) the minimum usable frequency

(d) the mandatory usable frequency

Click to reveal the correct answer

43. A 10cm wavelength in air corresponds to:

(a) 3MHz

(b) 300MHz

(c) 3GHz

(d) 30GHz

Click to reveal the correct answer

44. If two signals arrive at a point out of phase:

(a) fading will occur

(b) signal enhancement occurs

(c) cross-polarisation is produced

(d) the antenna impedance varies

Click to reveal the correct answer

45. Inserting traps into each leg of a dipole:

(a) allows it to only operate on one band

(b) eliminates harmonics

(c) gives broad-band matching

(d) allows it to resonate on at least two bands

Click to reveal the correct answer

46. What is the length of a piece of coaxial cable cut for a full wavelength at 100MHz, if the velocity factor is 0.66?

(a) 0.198m

(b) 1.98m

(c) 3 m

(d) 19m

Click to reveal the correct answer

47. A moving-coil meter depends on which of the following in order to operate?

(a) interaction of an electric and magnetic field

(b) interaction of a permanent and electromagnetic field

(c) the interaction of two permanent magnetic fields

(d) an electric field only

Click to reveal the correct answer

48. Which of the following items could be attached to a moving-coil meter in an attempt to measure power?

(a) a resistor

(b) a thermistor

(c) a thermocouple

(d) a therm

Click to reveal the correct answer

49. An SWR meter is inserted into a perfectly matched transmitter/antenna system. The value shown should indicate:

(a) 10W reflected power

(b) 1:1 SWR

(c) 1:0 SWR

(d) 0:1 SWR

Click to reveal the correct answer

50. Which of the instruments below has the highest accuracy?

(a) a heterodyne wavemeter

(b) a digital frequency counter

(c) an absorption wavemeter

(d) an oscilloscope

Click to reveal the correct answer

51. To check that a crystal is working on its correct overtone, the simplest piece of equipment necessary is:

(a) a voltmeter

(b) an ammeter

(c) an absorption wavemeter

(d) a dip oscillator

Click to reveal the correct answer

52. The trace below is on an oscilloscope monitoring an AM transmission. The depth of modulation is:

(a) 40%

(b) 50%

(c) 60%

(d) 70%

Click to reveal the correct answer

53. A good dummy load is constructed from:

(a) light bulbs

(b) a column of water

(c) wire-wound resistors

(d) non-reactive resistors

Click to reveal the correct answer

54. The typical accuracy of a dip oscillator might be:

(a) 0.001%

(b) 0.05%

(c) 1.0%

(d) 10%

Click to reveal the correct answer

55. An RTTY signal requires a bandwidth of ±3kHz. A frequency counter of accuracy 1 part per million is used to check the frequency readout of the 145MHz transmitter. How close can the signal be transmitted to the band edge to ensure transmission is within the licence conditions?

(a) 1.55kHz

(b) 2.855kHz

(c) 3.145kHz

(d) 4.45kHz

Click to reveal the correct answer

Index